what rights do i have

[tjgreeson]

I am working for a resturant and our district manager came in cause of the store manager was on vacation. everytime she came in she would tell us we didn't know our jobs that we didn't take care of the store. the district manager would repremand us in front of customers loud enough they can hear. she also proceeded to tell the truck driver who was there to make a delivery about how bad we were and she did this infront of me. two of the other managers at different times she reamed them so bad and so much that they got mad and yelled back they had taken repeated verbal abuse so much they could not take it anymore. we are only aloud a certain amount of an item for certain things and if we used too much we would get introuble. well thanks to her she would use more than neccessary which i didn't want to get in trouble for. and when she was asked why previous district managers didn't treat us this way she said they weren't doing their jobs. is there something i can do about her unprofessionalism and the embarresment i felt when she was doing this.

[cbg]

She may be unprofessional but she has not violated any laws or done anything that would give you legal recourse.

[tjgreeson]

not even if it is publicly embarrasing.

[grasmicc]

Originally Posted by tjgreeson

not even if it is publicly embarrasing.

Your question hints that you already know the answer to this...

Depending on how much harm you sufferred and a couple other factors not listed, you might have a tort claim for defamation. It doesn't sound like you have enough in the way of quantifiable damages in order to make it worth pursuing though.


To cbg: In order to try to help you see why this might be a claim, imagine if the facts stay the same except the OP is a Medical Doctor who is ridiculed like this in front of patients or co-workers in a small town, ruining his reputation and forcing him to move or seek a new career. It should be pretty clear that our abused MD has a case for defamation under the facts. OP, likewise, has such a case, but in OP's case it is going to be more difficult to prove any significant damages.

Yet, if, for some strange-yet-forseeable reason, OP sufferred considerable harm because of these actions, OP's got a claim.

If the MD has a claim, why shouldn't a chef be entitled to the same protections?

[cbg]

To grasmic: nothing in the information the poster has provided suggests that s/he has suffered irreparable harm or anything else but embarrasment. Had her post been different, so would my response.

Don't assume I don't understand the concept. I simply don't see that it applies.

[grasmicc]

Sorry for assuming you didn't know .

"To grasmic: nothing in the information the poster has provided suggests that s/he has suffered irreparable harm or anything else but embarrasment."

Jerry Falwell initially got a $150,000 judgment against Hustler Magazine for what amounted to, essentially, embarassment (later overturned by the Supreme Court because Falwell was a public figure).

See Hustler v. Falwell 485 U.S. 46 (1988).

Embarassment can definitely be monitized and often is. There are a lot of cases where embarassment is the only harm suffered by the P.

[cbg]

Fine. You have your opinion and I have mine. Mine is that based on the information provided in the post, there is no reason to believe that the poster has any kind of legal case.

[grasmicc]

Originally Posted by cbg

Fine. You have your opinion and I have mine. Mine is that based on the information provided in the post, there is no reason to believe that the poster has any kind of legal case.

I agree that poster probably doesn't have a case based on info provided in post.