kab22662
04-14-2006, 08:07 PM
My situation is this. I came home one day to find that my neighbor (A construction business) had bulldozed some of my property (aprox. 50 feet x 150 feet) and damaged or knocked down many trees. I contacted him the next day and informed him he was over the property line and not to continue. He said he was doing this for drainage but agreed not to continue. When I came home this day, I found he had done the same thing to an additional 70 x 200 feet. Over the next two weeks they dumped trash, parked old cars and destroyed this area further. I filed a police report but have not signed the warrant. After trying to resolve this issue between ourselves to no availe I threatened to sue. I need nine large trees cut down and a have very big mess to be cleaned up. His response was that because I have an easement down that side of my property he could do what he wanted. The easement is for Ingress and Egress to property to my west, he is to my south. He further states that if I sue him he will countersue claiming Adverse Possession. I have found out that he does not have a leg to stand on as far as Adverse Possession, but was told that he could go and buy the easement from the "owner" of the easement and skirt the lawsuit that way. Is this true? The property to my west was developed into a neighborhood several years ago and the easement is no longer needed (They gained access from another direction). I just don't understand how someone can buy an easement and use it for something other than its original intent or how this would negate a prior crime? Sorry for the lengthy post, but wanted to be as clear as possible.
Thanks in advance for any help or advice.
Thanks in advance for any help or advice.
