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ARSandy
03-30-2006, 03:19 PM
My company changed from allowing breaks to not allowing breaks in Jan 2005.
I know in MS they have that right, but there has never been a written amendment to the personnel policy. Does the administration have the right to state this in a meeting and never have it written?
We are the corporate headquarters for a very large company, does this new policy effect all offices or do they have a right to limit it to just our office? In reading some of the forums, I saw where it was posted any break less that 20 minutes should be paid. Does this hold true for our "lunch" in this situation?

Pattymd
03-31-2006, 03:49 AM
A bona fide meal period has been interpreted by the federal Fair Labor Standards Act as being at least 20 minutes and anything less than that is a "rest break" which must be compensated for fully (it's work time). How long IS your lunch? You didn't say.

Such a policy does not have to be "written", it just needs to be disseminated in some fashion. And the employer is not required to apply the policies consistently across the corporation. If some departments or locations get breaks and some don't, that is not illegal.

ARSandy
03-31-2006, 01:39 PM
We are allowed to eat at our desk so actually taking a lunch is your choice. I usually take a 10 to 15 minute break off the clock around the time I eat.

Pattymd
04-03-2006, 05:06 AM
Then that does not qualify as a bona fide meal period and therefore, you must be paid for that time.

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