travelmachine
01-19-2006, 08:31 AM
My question is a bit complicated well at least to me.
I do both international and domestic travel a ton for business and am an hourly (nonexempt employee.) My employer is out of California but I live in Colorado and travel exclusively from Colorado.
The problem I am having and I am not certain if they are in the right or not is, they are not using travel time or training time in the computation of overtime.
Example I just flew to an oversees site and had 12 hours of travel both ways. I worked 60 hours that week. Instead of getting 44 hours of overtime and 40 hours of regular time I received 64 hours regular time and 20 hours overtime. The 24 hours of travel were listed specifically under travel on my pay stub.
The same works in the computation of training hours that I am required to attend. Again for an example if I go to training for 2, 8-hour classes and then work an additional 40 hours I receive 56 hours of regular pay.
Does this make any sense to anyone and if not what labor regulation might I be able to reference in this matter? If so what labor regulation allows them to do this?
I was of the assumption that work was considered suffrage for the company and that was to be computed into the hours worked for overtime.
I do both international and domestic travel a ton for business and am an hourly (nonexempt employee.) My employer is out of California but I live in Colorado and travel exclusively from Colorado.
The problem I am having and I am not certain if they are in the right or not is, they are not using travel time or training time in the computation of overtime.
Example I just flew to an oversees site and had 12 hours of travel both ways. I worked 60 hours that week. Instead of getting 44 hours of overtime and 40 hours of regular time I received 64 hours regular time and 20 hours overtime. The 24 hours of travel were listed specifically under travel on my pay stub.
The same works in the computation of training hours that I am required to attend. Again for an example if I go to training for 2, 8-hour classes and then work an additional 40 hours I receive 56 hours of regular pay.
Does this make any sense to anyone and if not what labor regulation might I be able to reference in this matter? If so what labor regulation allows them to do this?
I was of the assumption that work was considered suffrage for the company and that was to be computed into the hours worked for overtime.
