eirractsew11
12-06-2005, 09:13 AM
I am manager for a cellular authorized agent store in Virginia. I was hired on as an hourly employee after receiving overtime for several weeks I was switched to a salary employee. There was no increase in pay just my hourly pay times fourty. However, I was still expected to work over fourty hours per week. In July my grandfather passed away and I took some bereavement time. Nothing was said about that. Then on Thanksgiving night my brother-in-law commited suicide, my sister witnessed this and I was with her all night at the emergency room. I was to work on Friday morning at 7am. I had the shift covered and took Friday off. Saturday was my scheduled day off and I took it as well. When I got my check on Monday it was not right. I called my district manager and he told me that they docked my pay for not being at work on Friday. That I should have been there no matter what and that I took 3 days bereavement pay in July and you only get 3 days per year. I have read the hand book and no where in there does it say 3 days per year. I know that he was not considered immedite family but there was no way I could have worked on Friday after that. My question is if I am now considered a salaried employee who normally works well over 40 hours per week and gets paid no overtime for it can they just with hold my pay like that?