rlopez
11-19-2005, 12:58 PM
A friend of mine has been working for a restaurant as a bartender/supervisor. He notified the Gen Manager that he did not want to do any of the supervisor stuff any longer on 11/9 and since then has only been bartending. He was expecting his wages to go from $8/hr back to $6/hr which is what he was making before he started doing supervisor duties.
The problem is that his last paycheck (from the 1st of the month) is entirely for $5.15/hr for the entire payperiod. He was expecting a pay change as of the 9th, and only back to his original pay rate. He also never received any notice, written or otherwise, as to the decrease in pay rate. However, he did sign a written notice when he received his earlier raise.
Is an employer in TX required to notify an employee of a wage decrease. Can the wage decrease be retro-active to the beginning of the pay period.
Thanks in advance for any help.
The problem is that his last paycheck (from the 1st of the month) is entirely for $5.15/hr for the entire payperiod. He was expecting a pay change as of the 9th, and only back to his original pay rate. He also never received any notice, written or otherwise, as to the decrease in pay rate. However, he did sign a written notice when he received his earlier raise.
Is an employer in TX required to notify an employee of a wage decrease. Can the wage decrease be retro-active to the beginning of the pay period.
Thanks in advance for any help.