I was recently involved in an accident in California, which I am told is a no fault state. The other party hit my rear fender with his front bumper. Being that there weren't any injuries, the cops weren't called.

I have been in an accident before in a no fault state, where I missed the individual at fault, hit a telephone pole, and totaled my vehicle, and my insurance company had to pay for the damages to my car (my rates went way up... no fault stinks! The cop in that case even said I should have hit her!).

Well, in this case, I have liability coverage (the car is only worth $1200), and this time both cars are involved. Does my insurance company have to pay for damages (therefore my rates increase), or does his insurance company pay for the damages to both cars (that would make way too much sense!).
Thank you in advance for your help!

I cannot answer. You need to get the police report and stay on top of how the insurance companies apportion fault. You may need to get an attorney to pursue this if the apportionments are unfoavorable, or the facts not reflective of your reality, and sue the insurance company, possibly your own.

Its better to contact a lawyer and ask for an advice. :)






__________________________________________
PI Los Angeles Attorneys, Lawyers and Law Firms (http://www.mesrianilaw.com)
"Common sense often makes good law."