bowlmeover
08-29-2005, 05:15 PM
My husband has accrued much vacation over the years. The company was bought out and grandfathered in people with a lot of vacation and told them they had 5 years to use it. He planned on taking 1 week a month this year and the company told him no. Now it is August and they just told him that they are going to 'take' 40 days and pay it out at the rate that it was earned rather than his current salary rate which is what would have to be paid if he was to quit. He will be losing around $3K to do this. He has no choice in the matter. Can the employer do this with accrued vacation meaning he earns so much time every pay period? If in fact they are going to 'buy' the vacation back, wouldn't they have to pay it at the rate he is at now. Thanks!!