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mwells
06-19-2005, 02:11 AM
My question is this...When I got divorced there was no order in effect for medical support on one of my children because she was not legally my ex's child. We agreed not to split up the children because he had always taken care of my daughter the same as he did his own. However, they did not include her in the decree because he never adopted her. There was medical support ordered for the other 2 children which I paid. Now he says I owe him back medical support for her which he has waited 3 years to even give me the proof of any these bill. Do I owe him the back support even though an order was not put into effect for her until this year??!! My attorney says no but my ex continues to give me threatening letters saying that I do and that if I do not pay I will go to jail. :confused: Who is right.. my attorney, I would assume, but assumptions always get people in trouble. Please help me if you know. Thanks for listening!!!!! Oh, by the way we are in Texas.

elklaw
06-19-2005, 01:25 PM
I'd go with the attorney's interpretation. Basically, if medical payments were a concern for him, he should have gone back to the court to make that part of the custody and support agreement as to all of the kids. You may want to seek custody of that child also, since he did not seek an order regarding custody of the child, but does not make demands like that on the other 2 children.

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