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fettcel
03-20-2009, 09:13 PM
I am currently renting a house from a family member, there is no lease agreement, only a verbal agreement between me and the family member that owns the house. Recently, I learned that this person has placed the house up for sale. My question is what can I do about this if this family member is cashing my checks every month, even when they say they never receive them? Will this person be able to force me to move in the middle of the month or would I be due a partial refund on my rent or would this person be legally obligated to allow me to stay through the rental period already paid in advance?

Thanks for any responses, and further questions to come as I get more info on this situation.

panther10758
03-21-2009, 07:30 AM
The owner must give you a "notice to vacate" in accordance with your state laws. This is likely either 30 or 60 days depending on how long you have lived there and your state's laws on subject.

Troubleshooter
03-30-2009, 08:20 AM
Actually, an informal rent agreement between family members is usually exempt from landlord-tenant and zoning laws in Indiana. Check the specific ordinances.

If you have a signed lease, the new owner is required to honor the lease until it expires.

If there is no written lease, the tenant is month to month, and there is no right to continue the lease. But the notice to vacate would have to come after the sale closing.

If the property is foreclosed by the lienholder, the tenant has no right to continue the lease, and notice is up to the lienholder.

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