Hansolo
04-19-2008, 02:07 PM
Ok,
Here's the lowdown:
We live in California. That is where the accident occured.
My wife was injured in a rollover crash on the highway. the other driver was at fault (as per the CHP report - witness and officers deduction).
She suffered a severe laceration to her forehead as well as a "de-gloving" to her left forearm / hand (there was not much left of the back of her forearm - skin completely gone, tendons severed, etc...). So far, she has logged about 2 weeks in the hospital and has had 4 major surgeries each lasting about 4 hours. The pain and anguish she has had to endure has been substantial.
She is left handed, so this will majorly affect her ability to perform her job (admin) as well as day to day activities.
She is on workman's comp as she was delivering papers for her job.
Party at fault lied at the scene as to what happened (in his statement). Police report agrees with my wifes statement as well as with the lone witness who was behind the accident.
Party at fault was driving a company vehicle (very nice luxury sedan) which is insured by a major insurance company. Part at fault is a successful business man in his late 30's, so I would guess he has good insurance as well.
Sounds like a slam dunk, but something concerned me yesterday as I examined the police report which was just released. We have the same insurance company as the party at fault (or at least as his company who owns the vehicle he was driving). Could this be a problem?
I will be getting a good attorney soon.
Any advice on how to proceed would be appreciated.
I had heard that this could take years and years to get to a suitable settlement... does that sound right?
Also, I did some research on the man at fault and I see he has both chapter 7 and chapter 13 bankruptcy's filed. Not sure what to make of that, although he is a Realtor in California... and that cannot be working too well for him right now.
If he is bankrupt, how does that affect things? At least he was driving a company vehicle (and that company has not filed bankrupcy to my knowledge...).
If someone is bankrupt, does that keep them from being financially responsible for an accident they caused?
Here's the lowdown:
We live in California. That is where the accident occured.
My wife was injured in a rollover crash on the highway. the other driver was at fault (as per the CHP report - witness and officers deduction).
She suffered a severe laceration to her forehead as well as a "de-gloving" to her left forearm / hand (there was not much left of the back of her forearm - skin completely gone, tendons severed, etc...). So far, she has logged about 2 weeks in the hospital and has had 4 major surgeries each lasting about 4 hours. The pain and anguish she has had to endure has been substantial.
She is left handed, so this will majorly affect her ability to perform her job (admin) as well as day to day activities.
She is on workman's comp as she was delivering papers for her job.
Party at fault lied at the scene as to what happened (in his statement). Police report agrees with my wifes statement as well as with the lone witness who was behind the accident.
Party at fault was driving a company vehicle (very nice luxury sedan) which is insured by a major insurance company. Part at fault is a successful business man in his late 30's, so I would guess he has good insurance as well.
Sounds like a slam dunk, but something concerned me yesterday as I examined the police report which was just released. We have the same insurance company as the party at fault (or at least as his company who owns the vehicle he was driving). Could this be a problem?
I will be getting a good attorney soon.
Any advice on how to proceed would be appreciated.
I had heard that this could take years and years to get to a suitable settlement... does that sound right?
Also, I did some research on the man at fault and I see he has both chapter 7 and chapter 13 bankruptcy's filed. Not sure what to make of that, although he is a Realtor in California... and that cannot be working too well for him right now.
If he is bankrupt, how does that affect things? At least he was driving a company vehicle (and that company has not filed bankrupcy to my knowledge...).
If someone is bankrupt, does that keep them from being financially responsible for an accident they caused?
