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abrenner
11-19-2007, 08:01 AM
My husband and I are considering changing the title on our home to just me. We settled on the house a few weeks before we were married and never changed the title to reflect the marriage.

My husband is willing to sign the title of the house over to me 100% and give up any legal or financial claim to the property now, or in the future.

Would anyone be able to advise me whether this information MUST be disclosed to the mortgage company, or is it at our discretion? We would have a document between us that would detail my husband's responsibilities to the mortgage. Initially we would not be able to transfer the mortgage to me alone (and he knows that legally he would be held liable if I were to default, but we are building in a failsafe). Eventually I will be able to "buy him out" and then re-mortgage the property.

Thank you.

arkansasscribe
11-19-2007, 10:02 AM
When I divorced, my ex-husband filed a quit claim making the house that had been ours, totally mine. However, the mortgage company still listed him on the loan. I gave them a copy of the quit claim deed, but they told me I would have to refinance to get his name off the mortgage.

I did exactly that and refinanced with a different mortgage company -- two years after the divorce.

Had I defaulted on the mortgage my ex could have sued me, but otherwise the mortgage company didn't seem to care in whose name the house was registered as long as they were getting paid.

abrenner
11-19-2007, 10:05 AM
Thanks to arkansasscribe for the response. I will look into whether there is such a thing in PA.

That is EXACTLY what I am looking for!

A.

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