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Staci Beck
10-06-2007, 09:09 AM
My mother-in-law is far behind on her property taxes. She owns 2 separate pieces of land. The first parcel is the one with her house on it, and the second is a 1 acre lot behind her house. She called the courthouse to make arrangements to pay the taxes a week or two before it was going to be sold for delinquent taxes. On the phone, she was told by the person at the courthouse that she needed to pay $575 to stop the property from being sold. When she went to the courthouse, she informed them that she was there to pay her taxes. She was then told that the amount was $550. Unfortunately, she did not question the $25 difference. She put her receipt in her purse and went home. Later, she received a letter in the mail stating that her 1 acre back lot had been sold at the tax sale. She thought she had paid the taxes on both properties. She has 30 days to contest the decision. Does she have a chance at getting her property back?
Thanks,
Staci

Troubleshooter
10-14-2007, 11:59 AM
Indiana has a one-year redemption period. Within that period, the original owner can redeem the property by paying the buyer the purchase price plus a percentage.

Ask the county if Pennsylvania has such a period.

You could also offer the buyer a deal if there is no redemption.

One would wonder if the county employee who found only one parcel is at fault.

moburkes
10-14-2007, 01:34 PM
I'm not sure how the employee would be at fault. It might not occur to me that the person standing in front of me is there to pay delinquent taxes on 2 parcels.

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