AzDragonLady
03-25-2007, 09:17 PM
I just thought of something else...UGH
I went into work on a monday, and then was out "sick" (labor pains) tuesday and wednesday and then gave birth on a Thursday.
Well, that friday was a payroll and the receptionist called it in and on my stub it shows 80 regular hours for that payroll.
I had an agreement with my boss that I would use 1 week vacation for each payroll I was out on maternity leave (she didn't have FMLA) and that I would pay myself hourly because I planned on going in once or twice each two weeks. And if I did then I wouldn't have to use vacation day for time in (like instead of 5 days vacation used, if I went in 2 days then I only had to use 3 days vacation).
HOWEVER....now as I look at my stubs and what I did, I wonder if what I did was ok. I actually paid myself 37.5 hours for two of those payrolls (thus not using an entire day of vacation time i guess). AND I used sick time (i think because I was sick 2 days in that previous payweek that the receptionist called in....I thought that was what I was supposed to do..so I did that on the next payroll.
My husband says I did nothing wrong because I didn't benefit from it, I actually paid myself less than my boss and I had agreed. Course my aunt says if I was "salary-exempt" then our agreement was illegal.
Then when I was back to work on a full-time schedule, I put 40 hours vacation for the first week I was in the office to make up for those days the receptionist paid me regular time.
I just remember having questions on what to do and nobody being around to answer them and payroll HAD to be done, so I just went with what I thought would work.
As I don't have copies of my timesheets and I didn't make notes as to what I was doing, I'm afraid that whoever is going through last year's payroll is thinking I did something wrong, because they don't know the receptionist had done that first payroll, nor do they know that I attempted to correct it when I was back from maternity leave.
Did I really screw things up?
I went into work on a monday, and then was out "sick" (labor pains) tuesday and wednesday and then gave birth on a Thursday.
Well, that friday was a payroll and the receptionist called it in and on my stub it shows 80 regular hours for that payroll.
I had an agreement with my boss that I would use 1 week vacation for each payroll I was out on maternity leave (she didn't have FMLA) and that I would pay myself hourly because I planned on going in once or twice each two weeks. And if I did then I wouldn't have to use vacation day for time in (like instead of 5 days vacation used, if I went in 2 days then I only had to use 3 days vacation).
HOWEVER....now as I look at my stubs and what I did, I wonder if what I did was ok. I actually paid myself 37.5 hours for two of those payrolls (thus not using an entire day of vacation time i guess). AND I used sick time (i think because I was sick 2 days in that previous payweek that the receptionist called in....I thought that was what I was supposed to do..so I did that on the next payroll.
My husband says I did nothing wrong because I didn't benefit from it, I actually paid myself less than my boss and I had agreed. Course my aunt says if I was "salary-exempt" then our agreement was illegal.
Then when I was back to work on a full-time schedule, I put 40 hours vacation for the first week I was in the office to make up for those days the receptionist paid me regular time.
I just remember having questions on what to do and nobody being around to answer them and payroll HAD to be done, so I just went with what I thought would work.
As I don't have copies of my timesheets and I didn't make notes as to what I was doing, I'm afraid that whoever is going through last year's payroll is thinking I did something wrong, because they don't know the receptionist had done that first payroll, nor do they know that I attempted to correct it when I was back from maternity leave.
Did I really screw things up?
