I'm looking to purchase a home in the city where I live here in Wisconsin.

On the second walkthrough I asked for the condition report and it has a note on the property lines.

I looked up the property through my county and you can see on the north side, there is a section of about 10 feet by 75 feet where the neighbor has fenced in his back yard. This 10x75 section is on my "pontential" property I'm looking to buy the house on. I found an assesment online and it states there is a fence aggreement on the assesment and the condition report states it's noted on the deed of the house.

If I buy this property, am I stuck paying the taxes for this chunk of land while he gets total and sole use of it? Or can I ask to have the fence moved prior to purchasing the home?

I would talk to the neighbor. Ask him that if he feels okay with picking up the tax burden on the part of the yard that he is using, the fence can stay.

If he doesn't feel comfortable with paying the taxes, the fence must be moved in a timely manner.

So you think that this "Aggreement" that is on the deed doesn't apply to new owners?

I'm fine with letting the fence stay. Its a big back yard. But I'm cheap, If I'm paying taxes for it, I should have access for it as well..

Just a few minutes ago I was asked another question about it..
There is a huge Oak tree in this section of fenced in property. Lets say this tree falls hits his car or house. Who pays? His insurance or mine? Am I responsible for it? Or did this neighbor take responsibility when he fenced in his yard.


Sorry for the goofy questions, I never owned a home before so I'm real green in the legal and land issues.

The agreement will state whether or not it is in perpetuity. If it is, the fence can stay forever. However, your neighbor should still pay the taxes on it.

Part of the agreement should also cover damages and liabilities for that piece of property.