joed3054
10-17-2006, 06:52 PM
Thanks in advance for the help... I also apologize for the length this may end up being...
I work for a small technology reseller (approx 40 -EEs) in WI and am salary + commission (commission makes up approx. 30% of my income). I am in sales and my base salary exceeds $455/weekly.
I never work fewer than 40 hours per week (usually 50), but am never paid for actual hours worked. There is an AM sign in sheet, lunch sign in/out sheet, and you must sign out if leaving before 5:00 PM. No timeclock nor sign out sheet is available if you work until, or after, 5:00 PM). NO effort is made to record actual hours worked, or ending work time (if after 5:00).
In addition, any time missed between 8:30-5:00 (excluding lunch), must be made up with no more than 2 hrs of "flex" time over every 2 week pay period. If you exceed the 2 hrs of "flex" time in any pay period, you must use personal time (if you have already accrued it), vacation time (if you have it available) or get your salary docked if no vacation or personal time is available.
Make up (they call it "flex") time must be supervised by the VP of sales to ensure time is actually made up, regardless if it is apparant that 40+ hours were worked in that week.
This includes time missed work due to documented illness. No paid time off is specifically allocated for use for missed time due to illness.
Personal time does not accrue until after 90 days of employment, and then at the rate of 4 hours per calendar month worked. No vacation time is earned in year one of employment.
It is common for employees to have a deduction of salary for illness in the inital year of employment.
One final example..... My company was closed July 3rd due to anticipated slow business, and we were faced with using personal time, vacation time (which I am not eligible for yet), on not being paid (my only choice) for the time missed due to management's decision to close shop. It was not possible to work, even if we wanted to. We were notified less than 2 business days before the 3rd, that we would not be able to work that day.
Here are my main questions....
1. Shouldn't I be considered non-exempt and be eligible for overtime pay?
2. Should I be concerned about sickness pay policy?
3. Shouldn't I be paid for July 3rd?
4. Should I consider filing a complaint with DOL, get legal counsel, etc. since HR dept (owner/CEO of the company) is unresponsive and will not budge on his position?
I believe labor laws are being violated to some degree and I'd like your expert opinion before taking my next step. I hope I included enough (and not too much) information to paint an accurate picture.
Thank you very much.
I work for a small technology reseller (approx 40 -EEs) in WI and am salary + commission (commission makes up approx. 30% of my income). I am in sales and my base salary exceeds $455/weekly.
I never work fewer than 40 hours per week (usually 50), but am never paid for actual hours worked. There is an AM sign in sheet, lunch sign in/out sheet, and you must sign out if leaving before 5:00 PM. No timeclock nor sign out sheet is available if you work until, or after, 5:00 PM). NO effort is made to record actual hours worked, or ending work time (if after 5:00).
In addition, any time missed between 8:30-5:00 (excluding lunch), must be made up with no more than 2 hrs of "flex" time over every 2 week pay period. If you exceed the 2 hrs of "flex" time in any pay period, you must use personal time (if you have already accrued it), vacation time (if you have it available) or get your salary docked if no vacation or personal time is available.
Make up (they call it "flex") time must be supervised by the VP of sales to ensure time is actually made up, regardless if it is apparant that 40+ hours were worked in that week.
This includes time missed work due to documented illness. No paid time off is specifically allocated for use for missed time due to illness.
Personal time does not accrue until after 90 days of employment, and then at the rate of 4 hours per calendar month worked. No vacation time is earned in year one of employment.
It is common for employees to have a deduction of salary for illness in the inital year of employment.
One final example..... My company was closed July 3rd due to anticipated slow business, and we were faced with using personal time, vacation time (which I am not eligible for yet), on not being paid (my only choice) for the time missed due to management's decision to close shop. It was not possible to work, even if we wanted to. We were notified less than 2 business days before the 3rd, that we would not be able to work that day.
Here are my main questions....
1. Shouldn't I be considered non-exempt and be eligible for overtime pay?
2. Should I be concerned about sickness pay policy?
3. Shouldn't I be paid for July 3rd?
4. Should I consider filing a complaint with DOL, get legal counsel, etc. since HR dept (owner/CEO of the company) is unresponsive and will not budge on his position?
I believe labor laws are being violated to some degree and I'd like your expert opinion before taking my next step. I hope I included enough (and not too much) information to paint an accurate picture.
Thank you very much.
