I have a friend who's mother has an oral agreement to sell 3 acres of land. The buyer never signed a contract. He aggreed to pay $3,000 over 30 months @ $100 A month. She has not received a payment in 8 months and has decided to sell the land. The purchaser has filed a claim to the deed.

Does he have a chance of winning this case?

I am not a lawyer...

Did she ever receive any money from the person? Was a receipt or anything else given to that person?

I agree with "demartian" if there was some money exchanged then intent was established. On the other hand if the buyer " who has not paid in months " pushes it into court you would have a good chance of getting your balance owed.
Why not start the suit yourself ( the friends mother ) for there failure to pay ?
I am not clear on " he filed a claim to deed " did he file a lien against the property ? if so he is the one that owes the money . did he file against himself ?
I can not think of a way he could file for ownership without a deed being signed by the owner. Has he made improvements to the land ? Such as build a home or building , move a mobile home on to the land and start living there.
Sorry for so many questions but when you start talking about adverse title actions against ones property many things come into play.