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Cainman
06-04-2004, 11:04 PM
???

jls
06-05-2004, 01:18 PM
"Ca!nman" <noemail@there.invalid> wrote in message
news:8pdwc.2102$%u4.120@fe39.usenetserver.com...
???

If you're not one, then calling you one to someone else is slander if done
by word of mouth, libel if by writing. The general term for libel and
slander is called "defamation," and anyone who defames another by
dishonestly calling him a pedophile has committed an actionable tort for
which he may be answerable in damages in a court of law.

Bill 2
06-05-2004, 01:53 PM
On Sat, 5 Jun 2004 16:18:37 -0400, " jls" <jls1016ns@bellsouth.net>
wrote:

If you're not one, then calling you one to someone else is slander if doneby word of mouth, libel if by writing. The general term for libel andslander is called "defamation," and anyone who defames another bydishonestly calling him a pedophile has committed an actionable tort forwhich he may be answerable in damages in a court of law.

Damages have to be proven in civil court. Merely claiming that your
feelings were hurt is not considered damage.

For example, if you can prove that your employer terminated your
employment because of the allegation of pedophilia, then you have a
case for real damage. But the argument you present must be reasonable
based on the preponderance of the evidence.


--

Map Of The Vast Right Wing Conspiracy:
http://www.freewebs.com/vrwc/

"Our country's a place of limitless hopes and
possibilities, and nowhere is that spirit more
alive than in the great nation of Texas."
--GW Bush, U.S. President from Texas

"One thing that makes George Bush such a great
president is that he does not govern according
to public opinion polls."
--John Cornyn, U.S. Senator from Texas

Don Zimmerman
06-05-2004, 01:58 PM
> If you're not one, then calling you one to someone else is slander if done
by word of mouth, libel if by writing. The general term for libel and slander is called "defamation," and anyone who defames another by dishonestly calling him a pedophile has committed an actionable tort for which he may be answerable in damages in a court of law.


If A says I believe that B is a pedophile, or It is my opinion that B is
a pedophile, and B is not a pedophile, is that slander? Does the extent of
the evidence on which Bs belief is based make any difference? In other
words, if there is some, but not conclusive evidence, that B is a pedophile
but later it is discovered that he or she is not, does the misleading
evidence render As belief reasonable and excuse him or her from slander?



If A says B is a pedophile, and B retorts: No, I am not, but you are,
and A is not a pedophile, has B committed slander? If B later contends You
didnt let me finish; what I was going to say was but you are full of
****. Does that make any difference? If B retorts It takes one to
recognize one, and A is not a pedophile, is that slander?



If B said in 1995, before Fermats last theorem was proved, If Fermats
last theorem is true, B is a peodphile, and B is not a pedophile, is that
slander? After Fermats last theorem has been proved, is Bs 1995 statement
slander? If A says "If B is a pedophile, I am going to kill him," is that
considered a death threat?



My last question is: can I get a part time job writing questions for the
LSAT?

Super Pissed Dad
06-05-2004, 05:48 PM
I heard a quote from a judge once...."I have only seen one person collect on a
slander case in the last 15 yrs"...do the math.
spd





The law isn't justice. It's a very imperfect mechanism. If you press exactly
the right buttons and are also lucky, justice may show up in the answer. A
mechanism is all the law was ever intended to be."
-Raymond Chandler

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